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  3. Seventeenth-century philosopher John Locke stated that as much as 99 percent of the value of any useful product can be attribute

Seventeenth-century philosopher John Locke stated that as much as 99 percent of the value of any useful product can be attribute

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问题 Seventeenth-century philosopher John Locke stated that as much as 99 percent of the value of any useful product can be attributed to "the effects of labor." For Locke’s intellectual heirs it was only a short step to the "labor theory of value," whose formulators held that 100 percent of the value of any product is generated by labor (the human work needed to produce goods) and that therefore the employer who appropriates any part of the product’s value as profit is practicing theft.
Although human effort is required to produce goods for the consumer market, effort is also invested in making capital goods (tools, machines, etc.), which are used to facilitate the production of consumer goods. In modern economies about one-third of the total output of consumer goods is attributable to the use of capital goods. Approximately two-thirds of the income derived from this total output is paid out to workers as wages and salaries, the remaining third serving as compensation to the owners of the capital goods. Moreover, part of this remaining third is received by workers who are shareholders, pension beneficiaries, and the like. The labor theory of value systematically disregards the productive contribution of capital goods—a failing for which Locke must bear part of the blame.
According to the author of the passage, which of the following is true of the distribution of the incorr e derived from the total output of consumer goods in a modern economy?
选项 A、Workers receive a share of this income that is significantly smaller than the value of their labor as a contribution to total output.
B、Owners of capital goods receive a share of this income that is significantly greater than the contribution to total output attributable to the use of capital goods.
C、Owners of capital goods receive a share of this income that is no greater than the proportion of total output attributable to the use of capital goods.
D、Owners of capital goods are not fully compensated for their investment because they pay out most of their share of this income to workers as wages and benefits.
E、Workers receive a share of this income that is greater than the value of their labor because the labor theory of value overestimates their contribution to total output.
答案C
解析 Supporting idea
This question asks us to identify something that is true of the distribution of the income derived from all of the consumer goods that are produced in the modern economy.
A The passage makes certain claims about the relative distribution of income between workers and the owners of capital goods, with respect to the income derived from the total output of consumer goods. However, no clear comparison is made between the share thus received by workers and the "value" of their labor.
B The passage states that roughly one-third of the total output of consumer goods is attributable to the use of capital goods and that the owners of capital receive one-third of the income from this total output. The shares of income are roughly the same.
C Correct. This is the best answer. As mentioned in connection with option B, the share of income to the owners of capital goods is roughly equal to the proportion of total output of consumer goods that can be attributed to the use of capital goods.
D Although the passage mentions that some workers, because they are shareholders or pension beneficiaries, receive some of the income that "serves as compensation to the owners of capital goods," there is no indication that this is most of the share that serves as the compensation to these owners. Furthermore, the workers who are, say, shareholders, may be owners of capital themselves. Therefore, the income that these workers receive as shareholders may be no reduction at all to the income received by the owners of capital.
E The passage does not suggest that workers receive a share of the income derived from the total output of consumer goods that is greater than the value of their labor. And it provides no explanation of such a phenomenon.
The correct answer is C.
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